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Old 09-04-06, 10:12 AM
hcow33 hcow33 is offline
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Default Defining a bad beat

I was just having a stupid discussion with a friend, about whether or not something was a bad beat. The exact details of the hand are not important. So I started wondering what other people thought. How big of a favorite must you be in a hand which you eventually lose to have it considered a "bad beat" instead of just a "beat"?

In the hand that was discussed, the primary action took place after the flop, but the odds were almost the same pre-flop and post-flop. Because most of the action happened after the flop, I am relating the poll to the odds of winning post-flop (before the turn and river).

For simplicity's sake, assume that the favorite played it fine, that the underdog wasn't given free cards or anything like that.
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